Young's Special Case!
Special Case
So we're actually gonna need a special case of the Young's Inequality we depict last time out to progress further. Without much further due here it is:
ab≤app+bqq.
So we still have ab on the left side. What changes though is the right side of the inequality, it looks much clearer without even integrals being involved. So here is the thing: It's a special case, so it has to make some kind of assumption so it's more restricted and in this case easier to look at. If you don't understand why we do this, don't worry. We first gonna look at the proof and in the end dissolve what was required to get there. The restriction is the conjugate index: p,q>1 where 1p+1q=1⇔1p+1q=1.
Proof
The trick is we restrict our inequality to functions of form f(x)=xp−1 which we set into ineq. 1. With that we can actually calculate both integrals.
∫a0f(x)dx=∫a0xp−1dx=xpp|a0=app−0
The second part is a little bit harder, because we need to calculate the inverse function f−1(y) of xp−1. Finding the inverse is easy:
y=xp−1⇔x=y1p−1
The hard part is: we want to describe it by q instead of p, so we end up with our special case ineq. 1. So what we want to do is take our made up restriction 3 and convert it so we end up with some relation of q to 1p−1.
1p+1q=1⇔p+q=pq⇔0=pq−p−q
Remark
So let's take a step back and look what we actually did here. Let's look back at Young's Inequality. We used a specific family of functions: xp−1 ,where p>1. They are as we required for the Young's Inequality strictly monotonically increasing and unlimited with f(0)=0. The counterpart of xp−1 is x=y1p−1 displayed on the right, which can be used to calculate the area above the curve of f(x).
So let's just take the general function xp−1 and look at it in terms of our equation. Here we used p=4 so the resulting function is x3, which doesn't matter really. Now we can choose randomly an a and b. And you can draw ab ,app and bqq directly into our graph.
So what we actually did is: We narrowed it down to a specific kind of functions and used a little bit of cosmetics to make it look nice. So in our graph we used p=4, following our equation 7 from before we get q=43. We chose a=1 and b=8 as you can see in the graph. So this leads to
ab=1∗8=8≤app+bqq=144+84343=12.25,